Let me be perfectly clear here: ALL emphases (italics) are mine, that all wording from the US Constitution remains unchanged, and that I have provided links to specific articles and/or sections.
The US Constitution was adopted on September 17, 1787. Since then it has been amended 27 times, including the first 10 amendments known as the “Bill of Rights.” Nothing, in any of these 27 amendments, gives the president (any president) the power and/or authority to bypass or ignore Congress, or to ignore the US Constitution.
Article VI states (among other things), that it “…shall be the supreme Law of the Land…” It further states, “…and all executive and judicial Officers, both of the United States and of the several States, shall be bound by Oath or Affirmation, to support this Constitution…” Article I, Section 1 states, “All legislative Powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States, which shall consist of a Senate and House of Representatives.” Further, Article I, Section 5 states: “Every Order, Resolution, or Vote to which the Concurrence of the Senate and House of Representatives may be necessary (except on a question of Adjournment) shall be presented to the President of the United States; and before the Same shall take Effect, shall be approved by him, or being disapproved by him, shall be repassed by two thirds of the Senate and House of Representatives, according to the Rules and Limitations prescribed in the Case of a Bill.” Article II, Section 1 provides the oath (or affirmation) the president must take before assuming office: “I do solemnly swear (or affirm) that I will faithfully execute the Office of President of the United States, and will to the best of my Ability, preserve, protect and defend the Constitution of the United States.”
Nowhere in my reading of Article I or Article II (or the rest of the US Constitution, for that matter) is there any citation of any executive powers to issue orders and/or resolutions as the president (any president) sees fit, to ignore the US Constitution and the people who elected him. So, with President Barack Hussein Obama’s latest campaign, his “We Can’t Wait” program, is he (1) being unlawful by ignoring the US Constitution, or (2) showing his inability (or unwillingness) to abide by the US Constitution by invoking (hiding behind?) the ” to the best of my Ability” clause of the oath he freely took, or the “may be necessary” clause? Obama, by taking the oath of office, recognized the US Constitution as the law of the land, that he has sworn to support the US Constitution, that Congress exists, and that ANY orders and/or resolutions he offers are, as “may be necessary,” subject to Congress. Does the fact that, according to a December 5-7, 2011, CBS News poll, Obama’s economy approval rating of 33% mean that he is also ignoring the majority of the population?
Regarding his “recess” appointment of Richard Cordray (and others), he has again ignored the US Constitution. In Article I, Section 5, the US Constitution is quite specific: “Neither House, during the Session of Congress, shall, without the Consent of the other, adjourn ….” And since the Senate never adjourned, how, without ignoring the US Constitution, can Obama make a recess appointment?
But that’s just my opinion. Can readers provide a citation(s) in the US Constitution or reason(s) for Obama ignoring the US Constitution? Whether the actions (or, as he claims, inactions) of Congress suit him or not is NOT at issue here. Can readers offer any other alternatives besides the two I have provided? If so, I ask you to offer specific US Constitution citations to support your alternatives. Your PERSONAL opinion, like mine, is worthless. Remember, opinions are like a singular part of the human anatomy, everybody has one.Powered by Sidelines